[b-greek] Re: the intent of Mark 14:38

From: Glenn Blank (glennblank@earthlink.net)
Date: Wed May 30 2001 - 17:04:41 EDT



Jeffrey,

dixonps@juno.com wrote:

>>
>> Agreed that there are two lifestyles being contrasted by Christ,
>> faithfulness versus unfaithfulness, but does Mark even refer to the
>> unfaithful generation that perished in the wilderness? [snip]
>>
to which you answered,
>
>Have a look at Mk. 8:11-13 where you have the concatenation of "generation"
>and "testing" as well as echoes in the seeking of proofs of what the
>wilderness generation did. Then there's Jesus himself recapitulating the
>wilderness generation's experience of being tested to see whether they
would
>remain faithful or put God to the test in Mk. 1:12-13 (note the reference
to
>40, wilderness, and "testing").

I don't see the connection of either of these passages to the generation of
Israelites that tempted God in the wilderness. "Seeking proofs" does not
echo what the wilderness generation did: there "tempting God" did not
consist of "seeking proofs" but of "complaining." Granted, one might see
parallels between Jesus' wilderness experience and the Israelites'
wilderness experience, but seeing that as an intentional recapitulation by
Mark is speculative at best.

You had also written earlier,

>> > Then there's the larger issue of whether PEIRASMOS **ever** means
>> > "temptation". But B-Greek readers from long ago know where I stand on
>> that one.

It seems that Mark 1:13 is itself an example of PEIRAZW meaning to be
tempted. Satan is doing the tempting, and his intent is not just to test
Jesus but to entice Jesus to sin. Or is your contention concerning
PEIRASMOS that only in the noun form does it never mean "temptation"?

With kind regards,
glenn blank
Pensacola, FL


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