From: Wayne Leman (Wayne_Leman@SIL.ORG)
Date: Mon Jun 25 2001 - 20:25:53 EDT
> Does anyone know of grammatical documentation to support the notion
> that there is significance in the change of word order in John 4:17 when
> Jesus rephrases the Samaritan woman's confession that she has no husband?
> She says, oujk e[cw a[ndra and Jesus responds with
> a[ndra oujk e[cw
J.N., I would think that we could say that the documentation is in a number
of the studies which have been published on word order in Koine Greek, such
as the dissertation by Timothy Friberg, the book Discourse Features of NT
Greek, by Stephen H. Levinsohn (2nd ed., Dallas, SIL, 2000), etc.
Fronting ANDRA emphasizes it, according to the rules of Greek constituent
order pragmatic focus.
>
> Also, in 4:18, are you aware of documentation supporting the argument
> that the position of the possessive pronoun "your" conveys the emphatic
> sense: he is not YOUR husband, he is another woman's husband?
Most likely, since we so often see the possessive genitives follow the noun
the modify.
>
>
> And finally, does the use of "exw" in describing her relationship
> with the man necessarily imply a sexual relationship?
No, not necessarily, but typically that construction with ANDROS would imply
a sexual relationship. I don't see any reason not to assume that a sexual
relationship was included in "having a man".
Wayne
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Wayne Leman
Bible translation site: http://www.geocities.com/bible_translation/
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