From: c stirling bartholomew (cc.constantine@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Tue Jun 26 2001 - 14:57:36 EDT
Anyone have anything to say about why ANATEILANTOS TOU hHLIOU shows up at
the end of the clause in Mk 16:2. Mark piles up so many adverbials in this
clause that perhaps he just didn't want to place yet another one before the
main verb. This is a lame explanation. Surely one of you can do better.
Also, I am wondering why we have a full stop after TOU hHLIOU. Seems like
KAI LIAN . . . TOU hHLIOU can be understood as a preface to KAI ELEGON PROS
hEAUTAS. The full stop, stops us where we should not stop. But that is a
different question than the position of ANATEILANTOS TOU hHLIOU or perhaps
is is a related question.
Some of you linguists have any ideas about the pragmatic significance of the
clause final position of ANATEILANTOS TOU hHLIOU?
Comments from nonlinguists are also welcome.
Clay
--
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062
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