From: virgilsalvage1 (virgilsalvage1@msn.com)
Date: Wed Jun 27 2001 - 05:17:23 EDT
On Tues, 26 June 2001 at 17:15.....Roby Ellis wrote:
"EP ESCATOU TWN hHMERWN TOUTWN
Grammatically speaking, is there any real indication as to whether "these
days" refers to the days in which the Hebrew writer lived or whether it is
referring the the times when God spoke to the fathers?"
Roby,
I think the answer concerning the grammatical indication that " ELALHSEN
hHMIN EN UIWi" is referring to the days in which the Hebrew writer lived is
that....as has been pointed out; the speaking to the fathers in verse 1
happened adverbally PALAI...( lexically...in the past, long
ago...formerly.)......however, the writer in verse 2, first gives specific
classification to God speaking to us in Son, as being....characterized by
AT...what is LAST... THE DAYS....but what locks it in grammatically that
these days are the ones in which the writer to the Hebrews is living is
"TOUTWN." This is the genitive plural demonstrative pronoun which has the
function of pointing to something that has just proceded or that is at least
nearby. (It can also refer to next preceding) All of these options refer to
something close. The demonstrative pronoun also is for distinguishing
between two different objects or persons. So TOUTWN already has
distinguished, being a demonstrative pronoun ,...." at ...last...the days "
from the times and places that were PALAI..past. But, more than that, TOUTWN
pointing to something that is nearby....more than that by being the genitive
says that the "at...what is last...the days" is something that is actually
characterized by being "these days"....the nearby days. Close to the writer
days. Not past days.
The Father having spoken to us IN Son actually has the classification of
being for the writer, at what is the last days....(that by the use of the
genitive TOUTWN means) These nearby to him days, not Those somewhere long
ago days.
Virgil Newkirk
Salt Lake City, Utah
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