From: Richard Allan Stauch (RStauch@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Wed Jul 04 2001 - 11:44:06 EDT
-----Original Message-----
From: Iver Larsen [mailto:iver_larsen@sil.org]
Sent: Tuesday, July 03, 2001 11:10 PM
>Luke 9:58 OUK ECEI POU THN KEFALHN KLINH
>"he does not have (a place) where he might rest the/his head"
>> This is translated in every translation I have read as an infinitive
clause.
>> NRSV translates the verse as "but the Son of Man has nowhere to lay his
head."
>The infinitive is an English way of expressing it in a short, natural way.
It
>means the same as the more literal translation above.
The question got me started looking for uses of POU~ with the subjunctive in
the NT or LXX. Of course, Matthew 8:20 simply duplicates this text. Three
times it is used in the form of direct question in the NT (Matthew 26:17;
Mark 14:12; Luke 22:9). Once, the LXX translates an indirect question (LXX
78:10, NAS 79:10). John's Gospel 11:57a uses POU~ precisely the same way,
though.
INA EAN TI GNW POU~ ESTIN MHNUSH
that if anyone knew where he was (he must) report (it)
Despite the interrogative, I don't see room for a direct question in there.
Nevertheless, John paints the picture of the priests and Pharisees going
around, grabbing people whom they know have been listening to Jesus, and
demanding, "Where is he? If you know where he is, you must tell us. We will
arrest him, and you don't want the same thing to happen to you." So, it is
an implied, indirect question.
In the same way, I don't see a direct question in Luke 9:58. On the other
hand, Luke does paint the picture of Jesus, at the end of a given day,
looking around for a place to sleep. Ergo, an implied, indirect question,
"where to lay the head?". Not for translation as such, but perhaps it is
best left to commentaries.
Just my musing,
Richard Allan Stauch
Long Beach, CA
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