From: Rbsads@aol.com
Date: Wed Jul 04 2001 - 18:27:29 EDT
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: Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:37:00 EDT
<HTML><FONT FACE=arial,helvetica><FONT SIZE=2>In a message dated 7/4/01 1:12:25 PM Eastern Daylight Time,
<BR>cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu writes:
<BR>
<BR>"I've always thought that this construction was a Latinism in Greek."
<BR>
<BR>I am almost embarrassed to continue my participation in this discussion, as
<BR>it is quickly proceeding beyond my ability even to follow it. But before
<BR>there is a discussion about Latinisms in GNT or in Koine Greek, which will
<BR>lose me, let me ask whether it is possible that because the original texts
<BR>are all in capitals without punctuation accent marks that the OUK EXEI POU
<BR>THN KEQALHN KLINH was written ambiguously?
<BR>
<BR>(Iver, Richard and Carl thanks for your patience with my earlier
<BR>transcription error involving KEQALHN.)
<BR>
<BR>The OUK EXEI POU THN KEQALHN KLINH can be translated either as an infinitive
<BR>clause completing the sentence or as a sentence ending with "has none" and
<BR>followed with a deliberative, rhetorical, direct question "Where may he rest
<BR>his head?"
<BR>
<BR>Though my NA text does not mention this latter possibility.
<BR>
<BR>I personally like better the reading that "the son of man has none. Where may
<BR>he bow down the head?" And while my preference is based on interpretational
<BR>concerns rather than grammatical ones, is there not sufficient grammatical
<BR>reason to prefer reading this construction as a rhetorical question, with or
<BR>without Latinisms?
<BR>
<BR>Does not POU with a circumflex accent (interrogative particle) and a
<BR>subjunctive verb imply a deliberative question?
<BR>
<BR>In the John 11:57 verse where POU~ is used as an indirect question the
<BR>subjunctive verbs can be attributed to the presence of INA and EAN.
<BR>
<BR>INA ....MHNUSH ( the priests and pharisees order that ... they should
<BR>disclose - subjunctive mood for disclose)
<BR>
<BR>EAV TIS GNO (if anyone might know where he is - subjunctive mood for know)
<BR>
<BR>It is interesting that the verb associated with POU~ is in the indicative
<BR>mood.
<BR>
<BR>POU~ ESTIN
<BR>
<BR>In the Luke passage the verb is subjunctive, and the only reason I can
<BR>discern is that the sentence is a deliberative, rhetorical question.
<BR>
<BR>It would seem to me that POU without the circumflex would be translated as
<BR>"the son of man has nowhere to rest his head." But that construction would be
<BR>better served by the infinitive rather that the subjunctive mood.
<BR>
<BR>I guess I am left with reading this verse as "the son of man has none. Where
<BR>may he lay down his head?"
<BR>
<BR>Thanks,
<BR>
<BR>Richard Smith
<BR>Chattanooga, TN</FONT>
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