From: Jay Anthony Adkins (Jadkins26438@cs.com)
Date: Sat Jul 07 2001 - 09:31:42 EDT
Fellow B-Greek Members,
Mark 8:35 (GNT) OS GAR EAN QELH THN YUCHN AUTOU SWSAI APOLESEI AUTHN OS D'
AN APOLESEI THN YUCHN AUTOU ENEKEN EMOU KAI TOU EUAGGELIOU SWSEI AUTHN.
Matt 16:25 (GNT) OS GAR EAN QELH THN YUCHN AUTOU SWSAI APOLESEI AUTHN OS
D' AN APOLESEI THN YUCHN AUTOU ENEKEN EMOU EURHSEI AUTHN
Luke 9:24 (GNT) OS GAR AN QELH THN YUCHN AUTOU SWSAI APOLESEI AUTHN OS D'
AN APOLESH THN YUCHN AUTOU ENEKEN EMOU OUTOS SWSEI AUTHN
My question is about the first phrase where Luke use AN in place of EAN.
Can anyone explain why such a change was made and any possible difference
it would make? According to several English translations I have compared,
none have made any changes in the phrase as a result. I also must note
that in all three passages the TR uses AN in place of EAN, however, most
of the translations I have checked do not use the TR. My UBS 3rd edition
has no remarks in the apparatus concerning this phrase in Matthew, Mark or
Luke, therefore I must assume they felt there was no reason to note any
variants. I could understand how someone with the other texts in front of
them could hear or misread AN as opposed to EAN, but I am still curious as
to what difference this may make, if any.
As always, thank you in advance for your assistance.
Sola Gratia,
Jay Adkins
Always Under Grace!
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