From: Iver Larsen (iver_larsen@sil.org)
Date: Sat Jul 14 2001 - 16:35:44 EDT
> From: Daniel L. Christiansen:
>
> Clay, my ancestry is Norwegian, and I weigh in at about 180, so I'm
> technically
> not a big Greek. But, maybe I can weigh in on the discussion, as well.
Being Danish and weighing in at 165 I am a lesser Greek than Daniel, but let
me ask you a question.
> > Matt 8:28 TINA
> > Is this the subject of ISCUEIN or PARELQEIN or both?
>
> TINA is certainly the "subject" of PARELQEIN, here: it is the TINA
> who is
> considered as performing the action of PARELQEIN. Whether it is the
> "subject" of
> ISCUEIN, is a matter of debate. 1) You could take it as such, and then
> treat
> PARELQEIN as a complentary infinitive, thus leaving TINA in a
> once-removed
> relationship to PARELQEIN. "A person could not pass by that way." I
> don't think
> this handles the first infinitive and the negative as well as it could.
> Alternatively (and I think this is best, myself), you could
> understand ISCUEIN
> as an impersonal infinitive, without a stated "subject," leaving TINA
> for PARELQEIN
> alone. "It was not possible for anyone to pass by that way." I think
> this deals
> with all the constituents appropriately.
I would take your option 1) and this seems to be the more common option
among the "Greeks". Both the numbers in the Friberg tags and the Philip
Comfort interlinear indicate 1).
In the GNT ISCUW is nowhere else found in an impersonal construction (Matt
8:28 is the only occurrence of this verb in the infinitive). Therefore, it
seems better to take TINA as the subject of ISCUEIN, meaning that no person
had it in his power to pass by that way. hWSTE is regularly followed by an
infinitive with accusative and if the semantic content of the verb is
relatively more prominent than the subject, then the subject follows the
verb.
Do you have reasons for why you prefer 2) over 1)?
Thanks,
Iver
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