[b-greek] Re: A question on Philippians 4

From: Mark Wilson (emory2oo2@hotmail.com)
Date: Wed Jul 25 2001 - 16:32:53 EDT


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Rob:

It looks like you are asking two people two questions. If
I am one of those (question 1) then here is how I would respond.
The other questions seems directed toward Alan.

You asked:


>1) Are you saying that the present imperative from the NOW aspect can
>imply BEGIN TO ACT and that the aorist, from its undefined aspect,
>implies an "AS A RULE" command? On the surface this makes sense, but it
>is opposite to what I was taught, i.e. the aggressive aorist is BEGIN TO
>ACT and the present is "customary-habitual".


What I was asking myself is whether anyone would object to understanding
the Present Imp. as a command that should be heeded NOW. To me, the Present
tense Imp. does NOT convey the idea of CONTINUOUS, ON-GOING action. It
simply commands one to behave a certain way at that very moment.

I did not quite understand why I thought that until I read Alan's reply. He
puts the continuous, on-going aspect, not at the tense level, but at the
context/lexical levels. That makes sense to me!

In the archives, notice Dr. Wheeler's words:

"We've gotten rid of the "once for all, point action" Aorist; might I humbly
suggest that we similarly dispense with the "progressive/linear" Present?"

Hope that helps clarify my previous email.

Mark Wilson

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