From: GregStffrd@aol.com
Date: Fri Aug 17 2001 - 21:28:46 EDT
In a message dated 08/17/2001 1:50:56 PM Pacific Daylight Time,
thielogian@yahoo.com writes:
<< Obviously Paul was being facetious in suggesting the
King's English. However, I wonder in an idle sort of
way, how your response would have stood up if he had
suggested Imperial Latin as the original language.
(I'm not seriously suggesting it). If there's no
evidence, surely only the imagination limits the
possibilities. >>
Dear David:
I think you are missing some key points here. First, Paul concluded his
response:
<< > Sound ridiculous? It's the same argument. >>
It is in no sense "the same argument." For him to write this way to someone
like Lamont who is clearly just looking for answers, who does not know
whether to take such a remark seriously or with a grain of salt, is not
helpful in my opinion. But I am not offended by it, nor do I hold anything
against Paul for witting it. I merely wrote to head off a potential
misunderstanding. I try not to presume that someone's attempt to make a point
by exaggeration will not be misunderstood. In this case, I think it might
have resulted in a misunderstanding.
As for Latin, again this is not a proper analogy. It's better in terms in
dating, but since the amount of Latinisms you find in the NT will be greatly
surpassed by Hebraisms/Aramaisms and since the syntactical data suggesting a
Hebrew/Aramic vorlage for certain books or sections of books, and, further,
since no church father or other ancient writer, to my knowledge, suggests
that Latin was the original NT language, there are gaps that cannot be filled
in one's attempt to create a parallel between a suggested Hebrew/Aramaic
original and a Latin original.
Best regards,
Greg Stafford
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