From: Ted Mann (theomann@earthlink.net)
Date: Mon Oct 15 2001 - 16:14:04 EDT
Greetings Comrades:
I'm not trying to re-ignite the AGAPAW / FILEW thread (which I regret not
following very closely), but I wonder if someone would fine-tune a remark I
made to a friend, which happened to be about the distinction popularly drawn
between these terms. I'm interested in the principle behind my statement,
not the terms themselves. My friend made the usual assertion about AGAPAW
referring to a special kind of love, reserved primarily for God, as distinct
from FILEW, which only implies fondness. I remarked that I doubted the
meanings in any given instance have much to do with the terms themselves,
but rather with the context in which they appear. I pointed out the
following four verses (in addition to others), and suggested that, in these
instances, the exact meanings of FILEW or AGAPAW depend on who is doing the
loving, and what is begin loved; that is, that either term, under similar
conditions, can mean pretty much the same thing. Do I need to eat crow
within hearing of my friend?
1. Lk.6:32 "And if you love (AGAPATE) those who love (AGAPWNTAS) you, what
credit is that to you? For even sinners love (AGAPWSIN) those who love
(AGAPWNTAS) them."
2. Lk. 11:43 "Woe to you Pharisees! For you love (AGAPATE) the front seats
in the synagogues. "
3. Jn. 5:20 "For the Father loves (FILEI) the Son. " [Is the Father only
fond of the Son?]
4. Jn. 20:2 "And so she [Mary] ran and came to Simon Peter, and to the
other disciple whom Jesus
loved (EFILEI).. " [Was Jesus only fond of John?]
I can't decide if this question is OK for b-Greek; if not, anyone kind
enough to respond might want to do so off-list.
Thanks for your help.
Ted
Dr. Theodore H. Mann
theomann@earthlink.net
http://home.earthlink.net/~theomann
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