From: RUSSELL RANKIN (rrankin@isd.net)
Date: Tue Nov 06 2001 - 01:44:26 EST
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Julian,
Matthew 2:1 and 5 are appropriately translated as "Judea" because a
reference to the Roman province was intended. Matthew's quote of the
Hebrew Scriptures in v.6 is a different spelling, however, This is a
reference to one of the tribes of Israel and appropriately translated
"Juda" [or "Judah"]. Matthew used the same Greek word in v.6 as the LXX
(Septuagint) in Micah 5:2. In either case, Jerusalem was in Judea in Roman
times, Judah in pre-Roman history. Benjamin did not exist as a land
designation in Roman times.
Russell Rankin
Minneapolis, Minnesota, USA
rrankin@isd.net
At 04:33 PM 11/6/01 +1100, Julian Duckworth wrote:
>But my question is simply this:
>Jerusalem was in Judea. Judea was the southern kingdom, composed of the
>two tribes of Benjamin and Judah. Was Jerusalem - as it was located in New
>Testament times - in Judah or Benjamin? I'd love to know please ... and
>how can we know for sure? Thanks.
>
>Julian Duckworth
>Sydney, Australia
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