From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Tue Nov 06 2001 - 08:27:24 EST
Another reply evidently meant for the list rather than for me.
>From: "Ted Mann" <theomann@earthlink.net>
>To: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu>
>Subject: Re: [b-greek] Re: In 1 Cor 14:26-33 men are meant
>Date: Tue, 6 Nov 2001 06:57:22 -0500
>
>Carlton Winbery wrote:
>> >It seems very difficult for English students (especially American) to get
>a
>> >feel for the Greek use of gender. If any pronoun, adjective, participle,
>etc.
>> >might include a man, they used the masculine. The masculine gender by
>itself
>> >in such words does not rule out women unless the context makes it clear
>that
>> >only men were referred to. I see nothing in the context of this passage
>that
>> >rules out women, certainly not vss. 34-35. So, the feminine form of such
>> >words generally ruled out men but the masculine does not rule out women.
>> >
>> >Carlton Winbery
>> >Louisiana College
>
>It seems to me the context of 1 Cor:14:34,35 may in fact rule out women in
>vs. 26-33. It reads to me as though Paul is contrasting the roles of men
>and women in the church. That is, when the church assembles, the men bring
>psalms, teachings, etc., the (male) prophets speak, etc., but women, by
>contrast (v.34), are to remain silent. Verse 37 then returns to the role of
>men.
>
>Ted
>Dr. Theodore H. Mann
>theomann@earthlink.net
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