From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Tue Nov 27 2001 - 17:53:43 EST
At 3:23 PM -0600 11/27/01, Paul S Dixon wrote:
>Isn't it rather curious that translators omit the definite article here
>and render it as though the construction were anarthrous? Does anybody
>know of a translation yielding "the sinner," rather than "a sinner"?
>
>But, more to the point. What is the justification for such?
hO QEOS, hILASQHTI MOI TWi hAMARTWLWi
Does this really signify anything more in the Greek than making hARTWLWi an
attributive to MOI? I don't think the translators are doing anything more
than expressing the sense of the Greek in idiomatic English. While I can
conceive of hILASQHTI MOI hAMARTWLWi ONTI, I can't quite imagine hILASQHTI
MOI hAMARTWLWi.
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
Most months: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cwconrad@ioa.com
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
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