From: Paul S Dixon (dixonps@juno.com)
Date: Wed Nov 28 2001 - 16:07:03 EST
On Tue, 27 Nov 2001 16:53:43 -0600 "Carl W. Conrad"
<cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu> writes:
> At 3:23 PM -0600 11/27/01, Paul S Dixon wrote:
>
> >But, more to the point. What is the justification for such?
>
> hO QEOS, hILASQHTI MOI TWi hAMARTWLWi
>
> Does this really signify anything more in the Greek than making
> hARTWLWi an
> attributive to MOI? I don't think the translators are doing anything
> more
> than expressing the sense of the Greek in idiomatic English. While I
> can
> conceive of hILASQHTI MOI hAMARTWLWi ONTI, I can't quite imagine
> hILASQHTI
> MOI hAMARTWLWi.
Aren't there plenty of examples of appositional nouns in the Koine Greek?
If so, then why should we not expect MOI hAMARTWLWi, if he intended to
say, "to me, a sinner"?
How could he have said it in the Greek, if he wanted to say, "to me, the
sinner"?
Paul Dixon
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