From: c stirling bartholomew (cc.constantine@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Sat Dec 01 2001 - 04:25:09 EST
Carlton Winbery wrote:
>>>> "Sometimes the article is equivalent to a relative pronoun in *force*.
>
>> James Brooks and I also allowed for a category of the article used as a
>> pronoun, but the more I think of it, the more I think such is
>> unnecessary.
>>
>> One of our eggs was Matt. 26:28. TOUTO ESTIN TO hAIMA MOU THS
>> DIAQHKHS *TO* PERI POLLWN EKCUNNOMENON EIS AFESIN hAMARTIWN.
>>
>> Now, it could be argued that the participle, EKCUNNOMENON, serves as
>> the verb of the "relative" clause, but I think it suffices to say
>> that the
>> second article agreeing with hAIMA simply puts everything following it
>> into an attributive position to hAIMA. Relative clauses have finite verbs
>> expressed or understood, so I would be more convinced if we could
>> find an article introducing a clause with a finite verb. Since there are
>> two modifiers of hAIMA, MOU and THS DIAQHKHS, the use of the
>> following article is the only way to express this attribution. Could this
>> be one more of the categories that have gotten into the grammars but
>> needs to be taken out?
>>
>> Carlton Winbery
>> Louisiana College
Iver Lasron wrote
>
> In one way, I would agree with Carlton that these could be called
> appositions/phrases in attributive positions. For those who are looking at
> Greek on its own terms and not primarily concerned with translation, I think
> that would work.
> But at the same time we need to realize that if we were to express a
> particular sentence like Matt 26:28 above in proper English . . .
Iver,
Sure, but the whole question of how it might best be translated into English
is a beside the point if you are discussing Greek Grammar. We don't explain
Russian grammar by talking about how to translate it into Swahili do we?
greetings,
Clay
--
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062
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