From: Jonathan Burke (jburke@sprint.com.au)
Date: Wed Jan 16 2002 - 05:53:48 EST
>
No. You have the seraphim covering their pudenda. That this is the case is
relatively evident from the entire passage.
with two he covered his face - hiding his face from YHWH
and with two he flew - utilitarian
and with two he covered his feet - if not covering the pudenda, what then?
>
Ok, now I'm confused...
I grant that the word 'feet' is occasionally used as a euphemism for the
pudenda, but I have yet to see that this is relevant to the seraphim.
The phrase here is 'covered his feet', and all you've given me thus far are
examples of the phrase 'covered his feet' meaning 'going to the bathroom'.
But since you don't believe that the phrase 'covered his feet' here refers
to going to the bathroom, I'm wondering why you reject 'feet' as 'feet'.
Why is it not possible that feet should actually refer to feet? I see no
necessity for the feet to be anything but feet here.
Jonathan Burke.
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