From: Bryant J. Williams III (bjwvmw@com-pair.net)
Date: Wed Jan 30 2002 - 02:49:25 EST
Dear Iver,
GRHGOREW is used 5:6, 10 to be "watchful, alert, spiritually awake." KAQEUDW in 5:6, 7 & 10 is
used of being "dull, spiritually asleep" which is in contrast to GRHGOREW. This is especially
true of verse 10 where EITE...EITE refers to both, implying that they will be with the Lord.
This is interesting when 4:13-15 uses KOIMAOMAI for those believers who bodies have died
physically, but are spiritually with the Lord. I do not know if one can make too much of a
difference between KAQEUDW and KOIMAOMAI, but the context seems to indicate that there is a
distinction being made, if only for this context.
En Xpistw,
Rev. Bryant J. Williams III
----- Original Message -----
From: "Iver Larsen" <iver_larsen@sil.org>
To: "Biblical Greek" <b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Tuesday, January 29, 2002 12:39 PM
Subject: [b-greek] 1 Thess 5:10
> Thank you very much to those who responded to my query on 1 Tim 2:7. There
> was no clear preference for option 1 or 2, and some wanted to sit on the
> fence saying both. But I am happy that there were several who supported
> option 2 which is my preference. I am not sure there is something which can
> properly be termed "dative of content" and I could not find "content" as a
> sense listed in BAGD for the preposition EN. The closest I could find was
> "in reference to".
>
> Now I have another query. These are relevant for the translation I am
> working on.
>
> 1 Thess 5:10 says
> hINA EITE GRHGORWMEN EITE KAQEUDWMEN hAMA SUN AUTWi ZHSWMEN.
>
> My question is about the sense of the two verbs. Let me suggest
> alternatives:
> Does GRHGOREW here mean
> 1) be literally awake
> 2) be watchful, alert, spiritually awake
> 3) be physically alive
>
> Does KAQEUDW here mean
> 1) be literally asleep
> 2) be dull, spiritually asleep
> 3) be physically dead
>
> I could look the words up in the dictionary, which I have. But I have
> reasons to be suspicious of the dictionaries for this particular instance,
> because they suggest a sense for these two words in this particular context
> that is different from the senses attested in all other occurrences of the
> same words in the GNT. It is implied in the context of 1 Thess 5:10 that the
> two verbs refers to the time/event of the parousia.
>
> Your preference? (Preferably with lexical and contextual reasons.)
> Thanks,
> Iver Larsen
>
>
>
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