[b-greek] RE: past tense augment

From: Decker, Rodney (rdecker@bbc.edu)
Date: Tue Feb 05 2002 - 09:47:12 EST

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I've not time to answer this in detail here. It's been debated vigorously on the list before (search several years back for the most extensive discussions). I've addressed the augment question & the imperfect in my book, *Temporal Deixis....* In (very) brief summary, the augment is viewed as a marker for secondary endings, not past tense. It is morphological, not semantically tensed.

Book info (on augment, see pp. 39f): <http://faculty.bbc.edu/rdecker/deixis.htm>.


============================================
 Rodney J. Decker, Th.D.
 Associate Prof/NT, Baptist Bible Seminary
 Clarks Summit, Pennsylvania, USA
 <http://faculty.bbc.edu/rdecker/>
 PURL: <http://purl.oclc.org/NT_Resources/>
 ============================================


-----Original Message-----
 From: Rbsads@aol.com [<A HREF="mailto:Rbsads@aol.com">mailto:Rbsads@aol.com</A>]
 Sent: Monday, February 04, 2002 10:43 PM
 To: Biblical Greek
 Subject: [b-greek] past tense augment

 

 My question is concerning the grammarians who interpret verb form as rendering aspect and not time. For these it seems that temporal indications are entirely contextual.  How do these grammarians understand the significance of the tense augment for the aorist and imperfect?  Most explanations indicate that the augment indicates past tense, which of course is not consistent with an understanding of verbal form as rendering aspect only. 

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