[b-greek] RE: past tense augment

From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Tue Feb 05 2002 - 12:10:04 EST


At 9:47 AM -0500 2/5/02, Decker, Rodney wrote:
>I've not time to answer this in detail here. It's been debated vigorously
>on the list before (search several years back for the most extensive
>discussions). I've addressed the augment question & the imperfect in my
>book, *Temporal Deixis....* In (very) brief summary, the augment is viewed
>as a marker for secondary endings, not past tense. It is morphological,
>not semantically tensed.

This is not quite right; while it's true that the augment is always used
with secondary endings, it is ONLY used in the indicative, whereas
secondary endings are found with all optatives, including present,
present-perfect, and future optatives.
--

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
Most months: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cwconrad@ioa.com
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/

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