From: Paul Schmehl (pschmehl@sbcglobal.net)
Date: Fri Feb 15 2002 - 00:40:51 EST
It's just the definite article, nothing more. There is only one "hO QEOS
TOU AIWNOS TOUTOU", Satan, so it's appropriate to use the definite article
to refer to him. Just because you read "hO QEOS" in the Greek does not mean
it refers to God Almighty. Only the context can tell you that.
Paul Schmehl pauls@utdallas.edu
pschmehl@sbcglobal.net
http://www.utdallas.edu/~pauls/
----- Original Message -----
From: "waldo slusher" <waldoslusher@yahoo.com>
To: "Biblical Greek" <b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Thursday, February 14, 2002 9:52 PM
Subject: [b-greek] about hO QEOS
>
> In Second Corinthians 4:4
>
> EN hOIS hO QEOS TOU AIWNOS TOUTOU
> ETUFLWSE TA NOHMATA TWN APISTWN, <snip>
>
> Can someone help me with the definite
> article here with QEOS. The only previous
> mention seems to be God Himself. Why use
> the definite article? It would seem like
> this would be the perfect construction
> for the anarthrous construct.
>
> Why give the being responsible for blinding
> the minds the title "the God" or "the god?"
>
> Waldo Slusher
> Calgary
>
>
>
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