From: Trevor Peterson (06PETERSON@cua.edu)
Date: Wed Feb 27 2002 - 05:50:12 EST
Well, one answer might be to re-open Carl's can of worms and suggest that this
be understood as a middle form. But that might not even solve your problem, so
I'll stay away from that for now. If I understand correctly, your problem is
with the apparent semantic disconnect between an action that one experiences
and a command for that action to happen. I wonder, especially in light of this
particular example, if it isn't possible to say that this sort of thing
requires an extended offer on the part of the agent. So, if someone has
provided a means of salvation that is available (to revert to the common
metaphor, suppose that a person is drowning and someone throws a rope), the
patient (the person in need of salvation) can be encouraged to take advantage
of that means (grab the rope). To do so is not to save oneself, for someone
else must pull in the other end. Still, the patient has a choice to make, to
be saved or not. To that extent, the imperative can be used. I suppose "let
yourself be saved" might be another way to put it, but that might put too much
emphasis on the agency of the other.
Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics
>===== Original Message From William Hale Boyd <wmhboyd@aol.com> =====
>What is the force of an imperative passive verb? Sometimes I feel like I
>must be rather thick in the head. It seems to me that if you give someone
>a command it would necessitate an active response on their part. Case in
>point is SOQHTE in Acts 2:40. "Be saved" (passive) in NASV. "Save
>yourselves" (imperative) in KJV. How can it be both imperative and
>passive?
>
>William Boyd
>Little Rock, Arkansas
>
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