From: Polycarp66@aol.com
Date: Sat Mar 09 2002 - 20:38:25 EST
In a message dated 3/9/2002 8:13:50 PM Eastern Standard Time,
spuluka@hotmail.com writes:
In many indoeuropean languages the second person plural is used for formal
address as a matter of respect to the person being addressed. The singular
would be used in familar situations.
Does this operate in Greek as well? Are there any examples of this in the
NT?
________________________
My recollection of this is that it doesn't happen. I could well be in error
though. I have been putting Westcott & Hort's NT into unicode for CCEL and
just did John 19 before I read your post. Here Jesus is speaking with Pilate
(and one could argue that he should have shown respect to Pilate's
authority). This is what appears (19.34 - for purposes of this e-mail the
punctuation is English style) .
APEKRIQH IHSOUS, "APO SEAUTOU SU TOUTO LEGEIS H ALLOI EIPON SOI PERI EMOU?"
The rest is similar.
gfsomsel
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