From: Ty Daniel Frost (tysbgreek@hotmail.com)
Date: Tue Apr 16 2002 - 06:53:46 EDT
J. Munk in his commentary on Acts says that the so-called Semitisms in
Luke-Acts are actually Septuagintalisms. For those of you who agree: How
would one identify one from the other? Is it entirely intuitive? Can it
be analyzed statistically? For those who disagree: Can you bring any
evidnce to view that would support the simple Semitism claim?
Waiting for an answer with bated breath,
--Ty [Frost -- new list-members please take note that BG protocol
requires a full-name signature to be appended to messages sent
to the list. Thanks, Moderator]
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