From: Maurice A. O'Sullivan (mauros@iol.ie)
Date: Sat Apr 20 2002 - 06:51:11 EDT
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At 08:15 20/04/02, Andy Jackson wrote:
>however, what can be the grammatical justification for this? Is this a
>standard 'passive' use of the infinitive?
No, Andrew -- what is involved here is the use of the combined XPEIAN
EXETE, followed by an infinitive.
If you look up the noun XREIA in BAGD, you will find within s.1 examples of
" with infinitive following " and along with the citation of 1 Th 4:9
(among many others ) there is a cross-reference to Bl-D. §393, 5
This section of Blass-Debrunner, Funk has to do with " The infinitve with
impersonal expressions ".
One can, of course, state in English: " there is no need for (anyone,
someone) to write to you", but the impersonal expression " there is no need
to write to you " is equally good English, in fact more idiomatic, since
it carries the weight of " there is no need for me, or anyone else, to
write to you " <g>
Regards
Maurice
Maurice A. O'Sullivan [ Bray, Ireland ]
mauros@iol.ie
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