From: Vince Endris (vince_endris@hotmail.com)
Date: Tue Apr 02 2002 - 17:43:13 EST
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Dear B-Greekers,
I am taking a Greek class from Holy Cross Greek Orthodox school in Boston.
Their primary goal in the class is to learn to read the language as reading
and chanting have so much to do with their services. Anyway, to get to the
point, they use the modern greek pronunciation which is far different from
what I learned. The teacher really pushes this a lot, though, claiming that
we KNOW that Jesus pronounced these words in the modern way. Leaving aside
the question that we really don't know what Jesus spoke, is it true that the
pronunciation had already evolved to what we have today in the time of Jesus
and the biblical writers? The fact that my teacher is so forceful about it
and the fact that pronunciation plays such a big part in their services
makes me suspicious.
I also have a question about subjunctive mood. I first learned to translate
these verbs with "might," "may," "should," or the like. However, I am now
being told that I should not do that. How should I translate them?
Thank you for your imput.
Vince Endris
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