From: Polycarp66@aol.com
Date: Fri Apr 05 2002 - 21:43:10 EST
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: Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:37:23 EDT
<HTML><FONT FACE=arial,helvetica><FONT SIZE=2>In a message dated 4/5/2002 9:15:51 PM Eastern Standard Time, wmhboyd@aol.com writes:
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<BR>Since the subject has been raised. Are there split infinitives in the
<BR>Greek N. T.?
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<BR>LOL! I thought Glenn dealt with that question.
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<BR>". . . the notion that the infinitive should not be "split" is a Romance language rule (it is in fact impossible to split a Latin or Greek infinitive, since it consists of a single verb rather than the pariphrastic form of English) that English teachers trained
<BR>in the classics tried to impose on the English language. English is not a
<BR>Romance language, but a Saxon language."
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<BR>gfsomsel</FONT>
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