>
>Now, as for a place which is not nicely written (from a grammatical
>perspective), and one which has been bothering me, is Mk16:6
>
>...: IDE hO TOPOS hOPOU EQHKAN AUTON.
>
>We have IDE, singular, apparently spoken to three women (the imperative
>in v7 is plural). Why is TOPOS nominative instead of accusative as the
>direct object? I suppose that IDE could be use absolutely, with an
>implicit ESTIN for the rest of the fragment: "See, [it is] the place
>where they laid him." Nevertheless, this can't be a specimen of
>good Greek.
>
How about, "Behold: the place where they laid Him." The IDE in
singular may correspond to a Semitic idiom. _Hinneh_ is used as a particle
of interjection in Hebrew and from what I could gather, is unconjugated (See
Gen. 19:2, for instance.) - although it may take plural pronouns in
accusative to indicate phrases like "behold us," "behold them." Often,
however, it is used absolutely as the Gk word IDE in this passage.
David L. Moore Director
Miami, Florida, USA Department of Education
dvdmoore@ix.netcom.com Southeastern Spanish District
http://www.netcom.com/~dvdmoore of the Assemblies of God