I'm working through 1 Peter 2, and I've got some questions that
maybe someone can help me with.
1. Regarding discourse analysis: Does it seem more likely that this
verse begins a new thought, or continues awkwardly from v. 3?
2. How should the participle be best rendered, as a habitual action,
or as an imperative like 1 Pet. 3:1? What is the significance of the
middle voice here?
3. Is LIQON here an accusative absolute? If not, then how does it
relate grammatically to the rest of the sentence?
4. What is the force of the perfect participle? Is it reasonable to
go with something forceful like, "having been completely rejected"?
In Christ,
Jim Beale