Josephus' Greek question
kdlitwak (kdlitwak@concentric.net)
Mon, 10 Feb 1997 22:22:35 -0800
Sorry to interrupt with another non-biblical Greek question, but the
answer might be of some relevance for reading NT Greek as well
procedure-wise. In the sentence
TINES MEN GAR EPIDEIKNUMENOI LOGWN DEINOTHTA KAI THN AP AUTHS
QHREUOMENOU DOXAN EPI TOUTO THS PAIDEIAS TO MEROS (ORMWSIN, (Antiq.
Proem 2)
how can I tell if EPI TOUTO goes with what follows or with what
precedes? It could mean "For some who display [their] cleverness with
words and hunt after the glory from it in this [manner/way?], rush
headlong at [their] share of the art." Or it could say "For some who
display [their cleverness with words and hunt after the golory from it
rush headlong at this share of art." Maybe I'm missing something but
since there are an awful lot of accusatives, I think it is possible to
argue that EIP TOUTO could be a substantive or go with MEROS. How can
one decide such a case? The German word order of non-biblical Greek is
driving me crazy. Thanks.
Ken Litwak
Ken