I have been lurking on this list long enough now to realize that a
lot of things have been discussed already. So if my questions have
been answered already...my apologies. You may gently reprimand me
and tell me to look in the archives (which, unfortunately, I don't
have access to because I don't have internet access).
I am working on a paper for a Greek Exegesis class on 1 Peter
3:18-22. I have a number of questions, some of them grammatical...
1)Is APEIQHSASIN in 3:20 an adjectival participal modifying PNEUMASIN
in 3:19 or an adverbial ptc modifying EKHRUCEN?
It seems that most take APEIQHSASIN as an adjecival ptc. However, Wayne Grudem argues that this can't be because, lacking the article, it is
in predicate structure and must be an adverbial ptc. (he thinks
it is temporal). He cites BDF #269-270 for support. (Turner
"Syntax" p. 153 cites this verse as an exception for some reason.)
Grudem lists Lk 2:5, 16:14, Ac 24:24, 1Pe 4:12 as invalid exceptions
to the rule because they actually are adverbial participals of attendent
circumstance. Is there a major difference in meaning? The only
possible exception Grudem admits is 2 Cor 11:9 (I think Robertson
p.1106 suggests Mt 13:35).
2) I'm pretty confused about the first clause of 3:21: O KAI UMAS
ANTITUPON NUN SWZEI BAPTISMA, I'm not sure whether O or BAPTISMA is
the subject; whether ANTITUPON is a substantive or an adjective; and
what it modifies. I would like ANTITUPON to be a subst. in a
predicate rel. with O (which would be the subect of SWZEI), with
BAPTISMA in apposition to the clause (?). Does that make sense?
Thanks!
David Miller
Deerfield, IL
g344906@trin.edu