> Also, I have a question about John 1:1
> en arche hn o logos kai o logos hn pros ton theon kai theos hn o logos.
> Considering the concept given by some scholars that the Hebrew/Aramaic should
> have a greater influence on the Greek NT re: translation and idioms, what
> about this as a possible translation.
> "In beginning was the word and the word was towards YHWH (o theos) and Elohim
> (theos) was the word." This certainly seems to fit with the usage of the
> divine idea from the Hebrew Scriptures. Any thots or comments? And, does this
> perhaps not describe the relationship of the Son as a divine being with the
> Father? And, though they both are Elohim, only one is YHWH?? Would be pleased
> with any input.
>
There is at least one major problem with your translation. In Greek when
one noun is the predicate nominative of another and one is articular and
the other is anarthrous, then the articular noun is the subject, not the
predicate.
Your translation, "Elohim (theos) was."
Paul Dixon