That is one of the reasons that many (I include myself here) hold that Paul
is citing--and modifying--a statement of faith formed earlier by a
Jewish-Christian group. [There are other strange linguistic features invv.
24-26 that support this suggestion.]
I realize that b-greek is not really forum to discuss form-critical
analyses of Paul; but in this case the stylistic feature justifies the
note.
Edgar Krentz, New Testament
Lutheran School of Theology at Chicago
1100 EAST 55TH STREET
CHICAGO, IL 60615
Tel: [773] 256-0752; (H) [773] 947-8105
Reply to: ekrentz@lstc.edu
or emkrentz@mcs.com (home e-mail)