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RE: Meaning of case

Ken Litwak Wrote:

>>>>>>>>>>
 I've basically thrown up my hands in despair at applying the rules or 
grammatical categories I know because just as soon as I do that some 
author goes WAY WAY WAY outside the lines and uses the cases however he 
felt like. I'm no classicist, I admit, but this is what I've observed 
what I've translated so far in situations where there really isn't an 
alternative. The author is not using the case in a recognized way. That 
either means the person is using bad grammar or we don't know the rules 
classical authors worked by. Any other hypotheses? 
>>>>>>>>>

I think Ken is on to something here. 

I remember a few years ago when I was translating the Apocalypse of John 
reading in the commentaries and grammars that the Apocalypse was a 
grammatical nightmare, full of impossible constructions and syntactical 
barbarisms. But when Richmond Lattimore, a Homeric scholar, translated 
it he didn't find it hard to read. Wonder why? 

Clay Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
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