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Re: 1 Cor 13:8-13



Phil, these are not strictly Greek qustions, so Iwon't say much in
order to avoid a doctrinal discussion, which this list attempts, with
good reason, to avoid (I think there's another list for that, Bible-L or
some such).    First, I'd point you to a recent, good comentary on 1
Corinthians, namely 
Fee, Gordon.  1 Corinthians (NICNT vol ??; ed. I. Howard Marshall; Grand
Rapids, Eerdmans, 1995 I think (I haven't bought any commentaries fora
long time, since I rely more upon other types of works as a doctoral
student, plus post-modernism raises all sortsof questions about the
nature of commentaries even for one who is not a thorough-going
post-modernist like me).
     Second, asking why Paul may have left a term out is nearly
impossible to answer.  I judge the lists of spiritual gifs and
references to them to be somewhat arbitrary in that they aren't meant to
be a complete, definitive list.  Third, (and to keep the post-modenists
happy I'll admit u fron that I'm theologically a Neo-Charisimatic), I'm
convicned that the "perfect" does indeed refer to the Parousia. Thus
this passage says absolutely nothing regarding spiritual gifts today. 
Indeed, when looking at anmy passage in Paul's letters it is important
tounderstand what it wouldhavemeant to its implied and real readers
first, before we entetain issues that may never have crossed Paul's
mind.  That's much like asking "how does Rom 13 apply in a democracy?" 
Since none of Paul's readers would have first-hand or even second=hand
knowledge of a democracy, it's impossible to directly apply it to a
democracy.  But I digress.  

Ken Litwak




Beth Bryant wrote:
> 
> I realize for most this is old hat.  But I am having a couple of problems
> and would like to get some imput on it.
> 
> 1.  prophateiai - in verse 8,  Is it referring to the gift of prophecy or
> is it referring to the product of the gift - a prophecy itself.  This would
> refer to all three in this verse tongues, prophecy and knowledge.
> 
> 2.  Why does verse 9 leave out tongues.
> 
> 3.  Then what is the relationship with knowledge and prophecy in verse 12
> in contrast with verse 9.
> 
> 4.  And if verse 10 is referring to the parusa, second coming.  Then how
> will this effect prophecy and knowledge and tongues today.
> 
> Just some thoughts, for the noble, to chew over and respond.
> 
> Thanks for your insight,
> Phil


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