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ACTS 5:28 PARAGGELIAI PARHGGEILAMEN ?Hebrew or Greek idiom?
- To: B-Greek list <b-greek-digest@virginia.edu>
- Subject: ACTS 5:28 PARAGGELIAI PARHGGEILAMEN ?Hebrew or Greek idiom?
- From: Clayton Bartholomew <c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net>
- Date: Tue, 17 Jun 1997 11:12:59 +0000
- Organization: AT&T
The use of the dative with the cognate verb is
discussed in BDF (#198(6)) and Zerwick (#60). Both
books suggest a connection to the Hebrew infinitive
absolute, but BDF also gives examples from classical
authors.
If a NT Greek syntactical construction is present in
non-biblical sources why do we need to postulate a
underlying Hebrew idiom as a source?
Further examples of this construction can be found in
Acts 2:17, 4:17 (Majority text), 23:14, Luke 22:15,
John 3:29, James 5:17. In Acts 2:17 the example is a
quote apparently from the LXX.
Is this pattern *very common* in the LXX as
translation for the infinitive absolute? If so, then
possibly calling it a translation idiom is justified.
If not, BDF's examples from classical sources would
seem to weaken this argument.
Clay Bartholomew
Three Tree Point