>From a preliminary scan, I believe that you have correctly syntaxed the
infinitives in 2 The 2:2 as indirect discourse. That is a subcategory of the
verbal use of the infinitive in object clauses, if my recalling of the
grammars is accurate (am away fr/ my study at the moment).
The use you cited fr/ 1 The 2:12 is an excellent example and corresponds to
the usage in 2 The 2:2 quite well.
David Perkins
Good Shepherd Episcopal Ch
Vidalia, LA