Re: 1 Cor 11:3-5

kdlitwak (kdlitwak@concentric.net)
Sat, 05 Jul 1997 13:03:51 -0700

I'd suggest there's no metaphor. Instead, lke elsewhere, Paul is
citing a COrinthian idea, that a woman should pray covered, not his own
teaching. Second, the evidence on hair styles and coverings shows that
it was in great flux and the assetion that prostitutes went around
uncovered, though oft=repeated, has no basis in hard evidence inCorinth
in this time period. If Paul were not countering the COrinthians' view
of the need for a woman to pray covered, why would he fist state that a
woman has autority over her own heard to do as she wishes (v. 10), that
men and women are equal in Christ (v.11) and that the churches have no
such cusotm of requiring coverings in the assembly (v. 16)?

Ken Litwak

Jeffrey Gibson wrote:

> On Sat, 5 Jul 1997 RHutchin@aol.com wrote:
>
> > We have:
> > 1 Corinth 11: 3
> But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and
> the
> > head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God.
> > 4 Every man praying or prophesying, having his head covered,
> dishonoureth
> > his head.
> > 5 But every woman that prayeth or prophesieth with her head
> uncovered
> > dishonoureth her head: for that is even all one as if she were
> shaven.
> >
> > Is it possible that Paul sets up a metaphor in v 3 that is to be
> carried
> > forward into the following verses? Thus, Paul expects the reader to
> see v 4
> > as, "Every man...having his head (Christ) covered (under
> authority)..." In
> > this fashion, Paul could be using the Corinthians' preoccupation
> with the
> > form of obedience (wearing of a hat) to illustrate the superiority
> of the
> > substance of obedience (the subjection of man to Christ, and woman
> to
> man).
> > In this manner, he shows the error of arguing over form when
> substance is
> > what really matters. In other words, I don't think Paul (nor God)
> cared
> > (cares) whether a man or woman had (has) long hair or short. >
>
> It seems to me that there is a metaphor here, but it is one which (so
> far
> as an admitedly quick perusal of) the discussion so far hasn't seemed
> to
> entertain, namley, that the "head" a woman "dishonours" when she does
> not
> wear a veil is not her own (or not *only* her own), but that of her
> husband?
>
> How would this occur? Consider two possibilities.
>
> (1) Not all women in the Corinthian congregation had husbands who were
>
> believers. Some (all?) of the women Paul speaks of may be of this
> group.
>
> (2) The kind of woman who went about Corinth without a head covering
> was,
> I believe, a prostitute.
>
> Combining these two ideas, we get a command to Corinthian women to
> keep
> their heads covered so that they are not viewed by outsiders as
> Prostitutes, and that they don't bring shame on their non beliveing
> husband's for this identification, nor convey a misunderstanding to
> them concerning what Christiainity is all about.
>
> Does this add anything to the discussion?
>
> Jeffrey Gibson
> jgibson@acfsysv.roosevelt.edu