<< Then again...
Isn't it interesting that while John is talking about that which happens
before creation he uses EINAI but once he begins talking about the creation
or what has been created he uses GINESQAI.>>
So, then, he is contrasting that which _exists_ (at his point of reference)
and that which _comes to exist_, from this same point, namely, the
"beginning" (of Genesis 1:1).
<< In the first couple of verses
John is referring to the state of being in the beginning EN ARKHHI as
before Gen 1.1. >>
John speaks of that which existed with God in the beginning. There is no
thought about what existed _before_ this "beginning" given in the text. If
John had written EN ARKHi HSAN HOI ANGELOI this would not mean the angels
existed _before_ the beginning. It would tell us basically the same thing as
Job 38:7.
<< It is in verse 3 that he begins to talk about what happens
when things start to happen. How can you have a discussion about the time
implications of EINAI when there was no time?
>>
That is the assumption. First we must define the "beginning" spoken of in
John 1:1. I believe it quite clearly refers to Genesis 1:1, which speaks of
the _physical_ creation. This is _after_ the creation immaterial beings, such
as angels. So, time had begun prior to John's point of reference in 1:1, in
my view.
Greg Stafford
University of Wisconsin