Re: APOSTASIA in 2 Thess 2:3

CEP7@aol.com
Sun, 13 Jul 1997 15:34:54 -0400 (EDT)

In a message dated 7/12/1997 10:37:55 PM, dixonps@juno.com (Paul S. Dixon)
wrote:

<<The problems with this are two too many. First, it has Paul then double
talking. He would then be saying something like this: now concerning the
coming of the Lord and our gathering together unto Him (2 Thess 2:1)(a
clear reference to the rapture) ... that day will not come except that
day (APOSTASIA) come first (PRWTON). Huh?>>

Paul,

One minor question. Does Rapture necessarily equal Day of the Lord. PT
theology distinguishes the two. If they are not equal then your first point
is not problematic. Personally, I think APOSTASIA is contextually defined in
vv. 10-12.

Charles Powell
DTS