<<As far a KEFALH being a metaphor in 4-6, I entertained the thought, but
rejected it because it would soon become nonsense when the discussion turns
to shaving the head. "Any man who prays or prophesies with Christ under
authority dishonors Christ, but any woman who prays or prophesies with her
husband not under authority, dishonors her husband--it is the same as if her
husband were shaven." The difficulties of this interpretation should be
obvious.>>
Roger replies:
The problem seems to be in the translation of the last part of v 5.
KJV has "...for that is even all one and the same as if she were shaven."
NIV has "...it is just as though her head were shaved."
"KEFALH" does not appear in the last part of the verse. For purposes of
applying the metaphor, the KJV is the better translation. Consequently, the
metaphor difficulty you identified above does not exist (except as created by
the translation). At least on this one point, we should not reject the idea
that Paul might have meant to use a metaphor. If the metaphor is really
intended, the translators of the NIV, while seeking to help the reader
understand the passage, have actually done the reader harm.