>>That is the assumption. First we must define the "beginning" spoken of in
John 1:1. I believe it quite clearly refers to Genesis 1:1, which speaks of
the _physical_ creation. This is _after_ the creation immaterial beings,
such
as angels. So, time had begun prior to John's point of reference in 1:1, in
my view.
But where do we get the idea from in Genesis 1:1 that anything has happened
before this? I agree that EN ARXHI is a reference to the BRSHT of Gen 1.1
but once again that simply says that it was in (the) beginning and that God
was there. It is an atemporal reference.
Pete Phillips
Cliff College, Sheffield, England