At 11:08 97/08/06 -0400, Stevens, Charles C wrote:
>I can't speak to *studies* on the subject, but the original (not the
>revised) New Testament to the New American Bible pointed out the use of
>"word games" in John 3:3, explicitly contrasting "begotten from above"
>in this verse with "born again" in v.4. The notes for this verse in
>that translation read:
>
><<*begotten*: the Greek verb can mean "born" from a female principle,
>or "begotten" by a male principle. As in 1:13 John primarily means it
>as "begotten," though many early versions translate it as "born" or
>even, with heightened baptismal symbolism, "reborn". *From above*: the
>Greek term *anothen* means both "again" and "from above". V. 31 below
>shows that Jesus means it as "from above", but Nicodemus misunderstands.
> (A misunderstanding that brings out Jesus' treaching is a common
>literary device in John.)??
>
>Theological perspectives aside, is this reasonable, both in this
>specific instance and, as the notes assert, elsewhere in the Gospel of
>John?
>
> -Chuck Stevens [SMTP: Charles.Stevens@unisys.com]