Revelations 1:1 ESHMANEN APOSTEILAS

Jonathan Robie (jwrobie@mindspring.com)
Thu, 14 Aug 1997 07:28:23 -0400

I'm not sure if I am reading these two verbs correctly. The entire verse reads:

Rev 1:1 APOKALUPSIS IHSOU CRISTOU hHN EDWKEN AUTWi hO QEOS DEIKSAI TOIS
DOULOIS AUTOU hA DEI GENESQAI EN TACEI, KAI *ESHMANEN* *APOSTEILAS* DIA TOU
AGGELOU AUTOU TWi DOULWi AUTOU IWANNHi

The participle APOSTEILAS has to be interpreted relative to the verb
ESHMANEN. As I understand it, the verse says that Jesus has made clear the
things which will happen (ESHMANEN), having sent (APOSTEILAS) to his servant
John via his angel.

Is this relationship "has made clear, having sent" the right way to
interpret ESHMANEN APOSTEILAS in this verse?

Jonathan

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