At 7:28 AM -0400 8/14/97, Jonathan Robie wrote:
>I'm not sure if I am reading these two verbs correctly. The entire verse
>reads:
>
>Rev 1:1 APOKALUPSIS IHSOU CRISTOU hHN EDWKEN AUTWi hO QEOS DEIKSAI TOIS
>DOULOIS AUTOU hA DEI GENESQAI EN TACEI, KAI *ESHMANEN* *APOSTEILAS* DIA TOU
>AGGELOU AUTOU TWi DOULWi AUTOU IWANNHi
>
>The participle APOSTEILAS has to be interpreted relative to the verb
>ESHMANEN. As I understand it, the verse says that Jesus has made clear the
>things which will happen (ESHMANEN), having sent (APOSTEILAS) to his servant
>John via his angel.
>
>Is this relationship "has made clear, having sent" the right way to
>interpret ESHMANEN APOSTEILAS in this verse?
Presumably the participle here doesn't have temporal significance, so I
think it could be understood as indicating HOW he "made clear"--namely, by
sending (them) to his servant by means of an angel ...
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Summer: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(704) 675-4243
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cconrad@yancey.main.nc.us
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/