Re: ALLOS and Jn. 1:1c/Was Anarthrous Subject

Paul F. Evans (evans@esn.net)
Tue, 9 Sep 1997 15:19:21 -0400

List Members of the John 1:1 Club,

Amen, Jonathan!  The employment of specialized terms is growing worse!  This is not helping to provide much clarity at all.  I think that we are much more into philisophical speculation at this point, rather than the text.  I haven't seen much new light on the use of the nouns here, or upon the relationship of the grammtical componants in the verse.  One more thing, I can't for the life of me understand, as some seem to be saying, that we must find the answer to this matter in the verse itself without reference to John as a whole.  It is entirely incongruous to speak about a Gnostic background behind this text when the entire passage and book is steeped in Judaism, albeit, Judaism which has been transformed by first century Christianity.  It seems to me that it would be impossible to judge John's full intent from an single ambiguous passage.  I sincerely hope my wife doesn't begin judging me entirely based upon a handful of words that I spoke to her before we married (or some of those I have spoken since)!

Paul F. Evans
Pastor
Thunder Swamp Pentecostal Holiness Church
MT. Olive

E-mail: evans@esn.net
Web-page: http://ww2.esn.net/~evans
----------
> From: Jonathan Robie <jwrobie@mindspring.com>
> To: CWestf5155@aol.com
> Cc: Apokrisis1@aol.com; b-greek@virginia.edu
> Subject: Re: ALLOS and Jn. 1:1c/Was Anarthrous Subject
> Date: Tuesday, September 09, 1997 3:01 PM
>
> At 01:26 PM 9/9/97 -0400, CWestf5155@aol.com wrote:
> >My point is not to prove a complex unit in QEOS with only Jn. 1:1-2, and I do
> >want to stick to the immediate literary context and the point that is at
> >issue.
>
> I have no idea what a "complex unit" is...could somebody please explain what
> they are talking about?
>
> Thanks!
>
> Jonathan
>
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