This gives me the opportunity to share a potentially shaky theory and see
what others think of it ;->
In reading 1 John, I have the impression that the author generally uses
EKEINOS to refer to Jesus, even in cases where there is no clear antecedent.
Here are all the verses where EKEINOS is used in 1 John: 2:6, 3:3, 3:5, 3:7,
3:16, 4:17. Take a look especially at 3:5, where there is no clear reference
to Jesus, but it must refer to Jesus because Jesus is the one who "appeared
to take away sins". There are also similar uses of EKEINOS in the gospel of
John.
This is just my impression, and it may be a little shaky because this isn't
the way EKEINOS works in textbook Greek, but to me, it seems to be the way
that EKEINOS works in John's Greek. Incidentally, I haven't run into this in
the Revelation yet, but I have just finished the 8th chapter.
Jonathan
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Jonathan Robie jwrobie@mindspring.com http://www.mindspring.com/~jwrobie
POET Software, 3207 Gibson Road, Durham, N.C., 27703 http://www.poet.com
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