Re: EKEINOS in 1 Jn 2:6
Jonathan Robie (jwrobie@mindspring.com)
Tue, 23 Sep 1997 11:00:52 -0400
At 08:58 AM 9/23/97 -0700, Glen Riddle wrote:
>The Divine Demonstrative, now that it has been clearly established in
>Johannine literature (though we still await results from the Apocalypse)
>and has been discovered hiding secularly in L&S, gives us new fodder for
>our canons in the theo wars. I will not sleep until we get a definitive
>answer on this: is ekeinos here (clearly divine demonstrative) (1)
>qualitative, (2) indefinite, (3) indefinitely qualitative, (4) definite,
>(5) definitely qualitative, (6) qualitatively indefinite, (7)
>qualitatively definite, (8) definitely indefinite, or (9) indefinitely
>definite?
Christologically definite, for my money. And given my take on John 1:1, this
can also be seen as a Christologically divine definite ;->
Seriously, Glen, how could it possibly be qualitative or indefinite?
Although I can tell from your tone that you don't buy it, you don't propose
another way to interpret EKEINOS in 1 John when it has no clear antecedent.
Could you please propose another solution, and present an argument that your
approach is superior?
Jonathan
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Jonathan Robie jwrobie@mindspring.com http://www.mindspring.com/~jwrobie
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