Re: INA subjunctive in John 17:4
lakr (lakr@netcom.com)
Wed, 3 Sep 1997 11:19:07 -0700 (PDT)
> There is, of course, no question that hINA + subjunctive is the
> common way to express purpose in 1st-century Greek. But isn't Larry Kruper
> asking why we have the subjunctive expression hINA POIHSW in stead of an
> indicative since Jesus is referring to a work that He has completed? I
> believe the key to understanding why we have a subjunctive expression rather
> than indicative is, as Larry has suggested - although he may not have made
> it altogether clear - that the work referred to was contingent on its
> fulfillment at the *time* it was given (DEDWKAS). Since the hINA clause
> modifies DEDWKAS here, it expresses the sense of contingency present from
> the point of view of an action that took place before completion of TO ERGON.
> Regards,
> David Moore
David, thank you very much. Your explanation is very helpful and solves
my specific problem which was to allow myself to form a mental image
of this verse without modifying my "model" of the subjunctive mood.
Your explanation states precisely what I was feeling but what I
did not express effectively.
Sincerely,
Larry Kruper