>but not as you quote it.
Au contraire, Matthew. By what rule in Greek would it be "natural" to
expect a predicate noun, preceding the verb and another noun, to be
"without the article"? Have I missed something? Only if one assumes
Colwell's rule, which assumes definiteness, should we expect the definite
noun to occur without the article in such a situation. But, we have to
assume definiteness to do so, and that begs the question.
>Murray J. Harris has a very fine treatment of John 1:1 in *Jesus As
>God* (Baker 1992, pps 51-71). Harris discusses Colwell and his
>interpretation of John 1:1. He disagrees with Colwell for reasons
>somewhat different than yours. I will not attempt to give a synopsis
>of Harris here which would be to do him a grave injustice. Harris'
>book is a exceptionally fine example of lucid Greek exegesis. If you
have
>not read it you are missing out.
>
Well, I haven't read him, but would certainly be open to doing so. I do
hate to miss out. But, I also hate it when guys bring up articles, don't
tell us the point or thesis of the article, then suggest we read it. Why
not wet our appetites by at least giving us his main point and argument?
If you can't do so now (no slam intended), then why not go back and
figure it out, then get back to us? That might be a more efficient use
of time and energy. Thanks.
Paul S. Dixon